Another shooting in the USA. Remind me about the reason for having guns again. - by SubJeff
LarryG on 7/9/2012 at 16:22
If a subset of the data does show a true correlation to gun homicides, that would mean that the criteria for selecting the subset drives the correlation, not gun ownership. Gun ownership
per se is not related to gun homicides, not by itself. It is, as I think I said before, more likely driven by a) gun availability AND b) other operating factors (possibly poverty, possibly politics, possibly culture, possibly gun regulations, possibly, possibly, possibly, ...). But you cannot make the simplistic argument that more guns implies either more or less gun homicides. Neither of those relationships is supported by the data. If we had state by state data for gun homicides and gun ownership, or, better still, county by county data for the entire USA, then we could analyze that to see if there is a useful correlation for US gun ownership. But you would not necessarily be able to generalize any findings to any other country. The best we can say right now is that without gun availability there can be no gun homicides. But that's not a particularly useful observation.
Quote Posted by jay pettitt
If you fail, it's just for that data and that comparison.
No. That you don't know until you find a data set for which there is a strong correlation. All you can say is that for the data you looked at this was the result. That's all you can ever say. You can't make any statements about data you didn't look at, except statistically. If the data you looked at was a representative sample of a larger data set, then you can generalize it to the larger data set. But you would need to show that it was in fact representative first.
SO: we can be confident that the UNODC data gathered through its annual crime survey does not support the ideas that more guns = more gun homicides or that less guns = more gun homicides or that more guns = less gun homicides or less guns = less gun homicides. Instead it supports the idea that pure gun availability does not drive gun homicides and that other factors should be looked at to determine reasonable candidates for causative factors in gun homicides.
SubJeff on 7/9/2012 at 17:54
It's not my job to be your stats teacher. Re-read both both our last 4 forum posts.
Correlation and causation are NOT "forms" of each other.
Vivian on 7/9/2012 at 18:39
I think it's wicked that people are actually throwing around regression stats and shit, go go go! Can we extend this technique to how much exactly bioshock sucked next?
jay pettitt on 7/9/2012 at 19:28
Quote Posted by LarryG
If a subset of the data does show a true correlation to gun homicides, that would mean that the criteria for selecting the subset drives the correlation, not gun ownership. Gun ownership
per se is not related to gun homicides, not by itself.
That was Subjeff's argument though - at least I think it was. You can refine the query.
Also, it's very possible that A causes B, but C is also happening sometimes which skews the results. It doesn't have to be the other way around. It may be that possibly culture, possibly politics etc etc cause guns to be unusually safe in some places which masks the possible fact that guns cause mass murder sprees if those places are included in your survey.
SubJeff on 7/9/2012 at 19:43
At least someone gets it.
God this is exhausting.
LarryG on 7/9/2012 at 19:59
Quote Posted by Subjective Effect
It's not my job to be your stats teacher. Re-read both both our last 4 forum posts.
Correlation and causation are NOT "forms" of each other.
Sigh.
Jer. 5:21 "Hear now this, O foolish people, and without understanding; which have eyes, and see not; which have ears, and hear not."
Read: (
http://stats.org/in_depth/faq/causation_correlation.htm) What is the difference between causation and correlation?. Just read the 1st paragraph:
Quote:
One of the most common errors we find in the press is the confusion between correlation and causation in scientific and health-related studies. In theory, these are easy to distinguish — an action or occurrence can cause another (such as smoking causes lung cancer), or it can correlate with another (such as smoking is correlated with alcoholism).
If one action causes another, then they are most certainly correlated. But just because two things occur together does not mean that one caused the other, even if it seems to make sense.
Bluntly,
correlation refers to any of a broad class of statistical relationships involving dependence.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causality) Causation is just one of those statistical relations in that class. In particular it is the correlation relationship where the relationship is between a set of factors (causes) and a phenomenon (the effect), where the effect is understood to be a consequence of the causes. All causation relationships are correlations, but not all correlations are causation. (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Correlation_does_not_imply_causation) Correlation does not imply causation. But causation
does imply correlation. So lack of correlation means there cannot be causation.
Think. Understand.
jay pettitt on 7/9/2012 at 20:16
You're arguing over semantics.
The point of statistics is to illuminate useful information in data.
If you're interested in, say, what might happen to homicide rates if the US introduced stronger gun controls then the lack of correlation in the global UN data may not actually be very informative. Or it might be. We don't know. There's more work to be done before you can say something interesting.
LarryG on 7/9/2012 at 20:29
This discussion about cause and effect is in response to
Quote Posted by Jason Moyer
In areas where the rate of legal firearm possession is highest, people don't fucking shoot each other. This is, in a nutshell, why 99% of gun control arguments are complete bullshit.
The statistics do not bear that out. What they do demonstrate is that the rate of firearm possession is independent from whether people "fucking shoot each other." In looking for the causative factors for people shooting each other, you need to look elsewhere. That's the point.
jay pettitt on 7/9/2012 at 20:40
Yes and no.
This isn't physics or engineering. We all know/accept (except for Jason) that it's probably going to be complicated and there's going to be more than one thing happening at a time.
Your take of the UN data failed to suggest any correlation between ownership and shooting people dead. But Chimpy's re-analysis suggested that, actually, there might be.
So the job now is to try and better understand why your analysis and Chimpy's give us different answers, and whether that might be instructive.